Was the man named Adam in Genesis 2-4?

Note: This is part of my observations about the parts of the Hebrew Bible that I've been translating to for fun and for learning.

I think most, if not all of the English translations uses the name Adam in Genesis 2-4 as a name to refer to the first man. However, if one looks at the Leningrad Codex -- which is the oldest and most complete form of a Hebrew Bible manuscript that we have so far, and is the basis for most, if not all of the English translation of the Old Testament -- that isn't the case.

Throughout Genesis 2-4, the word used is הָאָדָם (ha'adam). First, the word אָדָם ('adam) literally means, "person, human." Second, the definite article הָ (ha) is attached to אָדָם ('adam). The definite article is translated as "the," and is used as a way to designate a title to someone or something, it's never used as a name. For example, I cannot be referred to as, "the Aaron," because that is neither my title nor my name. I'm simply refer to by name, "Aaron," which is my name and has no definite article. Therefore, it's more accurate to translate הָאָדָם (ha'adam) as "the human," and not as a name.

There is one exception to this in Genesis 4:25, which does read אָדָם ('adam) without the definite article הָ (ha). Does that mean that the human now has the name "Adam"? It's possible, but I'm unconvinced. Elsewhere in many different sections of the Hebrew Bible such as Ecclesiastes, Psalms, and Ezekiel, to name a few, the use of אָדָם ('adam) refers to humans rather than a particular Adam. The Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia (BHS), which is a critical edition of the Leningrad Codex (meaning that it provides a lot of analysis and tools to help one form a better understanding of the Old Testament texts), suggest emending the definite article הָ (ha) onto אָדָם ('adam) in verse 25.

So with that, why do the English translations translate הָאָדָם (ha'adam) as "Adam," but not "the human"? I'm not entirely sure why; it dumbfounds me, quite honestly. Perhaps, it's because the woman is named "Eve," so they feel the name to compliment it with a male name. I find this to be extremely unconvincing choice if that's the reason.

Tangent: in Hebrew, the name of the woman is actually חַוָּה (Hawwah), which sounds similar to חַיָּה (Hayah) "life." I honestly don't know how "Eve" got into the English translation, but that's not our concern as of now. In addition, the name Hawwah only appears twice in Genesis 2-4; most of the time, she is referred to as אִשְׁתּוֹ ('ishto) "his woman/wife," or הָאִשָּׁה ('ishah) "the woman/wife."

I have a one or two guesses as to why English translations translate הָאָדָם (ha'adam) as "Adam," but not "the human," but it takes some time to explain, which I may (or may not) do in another post.

So does the human ever get named Adam? Most likely in Genesis 5. Verses 1-3 read,

" ¹ This is the scroll of the generation of אָדָם ('adam), when God created אָדָם ('adam), in the likeness of God He made him (or them), ² male and female He created and blessed them, and called their name אָדָם ('adam) when they were created: ³ And אָדָם ('adam) was a hundred and thirty years and begot in his likeness, as his image, and he called his name Sheth." (my translation).

The use of אָדָם ('adam) here is complicated. First, it should be noted that the definite article הָ (ha) is not used. Second, the uses of אָדָם ('adam) differs from one another throughout the verses.

For example, the use of אָדָם ('adam) in verse 2 seems to be clear: "male and female He created and blessed them, and called their name אָדָם ('adam) when they were created." The use of plurals as well as the two genders clearly shows that אָדָם ('adam) here refers to humans, not the name.

Verse 3 is also clear as well: "And אָדָם ('adam) was a hundred and thirty years and begot in his likeness, as his image, and he called his name Sheth." The fact that an exact age was given, it would be weird to then translate אָדָם ('adam) as "human," but it is more fitting to translate it as a name, "Adam."

So how about verse 1? Even after examining verse 2 and 3, the use of אָדָם ('adam) is still ambiguous in verse 1. More precisely, the first use of אָדָם ('adam) is definitely unclear, which can be translated either as "human" or "Adam." Is the genealogy about humans in general or the line of Adam, specifically?

The second use of אָדָם ('adam) is a little bit more clear: "...when God created אָדָם ('adam), in the likeness of God He made him (or them)." The phrase "in the likeness of God," recalls the creation of humans in the first account of creation in Genesis 1:1-2:4, which then is followed by verse 2 with the phrase "male and female He created and blessed them," also recalling Genesis 1:1-2:4. Therefore, the second use of אָדָם ('adam) in verse 1 can be translated as "human," with some confidence.

Since the second use of אָדָם ('adam) can probably be translated as "human," the first use of אָדָם ('adam) can be translated as "human" as well, but again, that is uncertain.

Overall, הָאָדָם (ha'adam) in Genesis 2-4 should be translated to as "the human" rather than the name "Adam," and it is only then in Genesis 5 when אָדָם ('adam) can be considered a name, albeit in certain contexts. Even then, אָדָם ('adam) in other parts of the Hebrew Bible tends to refer to human beings.

Of course, I could totally be wrong about all of this (I feel like this disclaimer should be a given with every post), but this is where my basic knowledge of Biblical Hebrew has led me to.